I came across a statement which says that $$F(x+e t) = F(x) + ct $$, for all $x \in \mathbb R^m$ where $c$ is constant , and $e = (1,1,....,1)$ is equivalent to saying that $$\sum_{j=1}^m \frac {\partial^2 F}{\partial x_i \partial x_j}(x) =0 ..\forall i \in 1,...., m , x \in \mathbb R^m$$
Here $F$ is twice differentiable function .
Can someone help me to see that both of them are equivalent statements . Thanks