8

Question is :

If $\sum _{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ is absolutely convergent then which of the following is not true?

  • $\sum_{m=n}^{\infty}a_m\rightarrow 0$ as $n\rightarrow \infty$
  • $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n\sin n$ is convergent.
  • $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}e^{a_n}$ is divergent.
  • $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n^2$ is divergent.

First thing I would like to concentrate on is third option (as it is easy :P)....

absolutely convergence of $\sum _{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ imply $a_n\rightarrow 0$ i.e., $e^{a_n}\rightarrow 1$ i.e.,$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}e^{a_n}$ is divergent.

I guess second option is most probably true..

It is for sure absolute convergence as $|a_n\sin n|\leq |a_n|$ for all $n$.... I could not give concrete argument for convergence.

I guess fourth option is false...

absolutely convergence of $\sum _{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ imply $a_n\rightarrow 0$ i.e., after certain stage $|a_n|<1$ i.e., $|a_n^2|<|a_n|$ So, we would have convergence of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n^2$.

I do not understand what is actual point of first option...

Could some one confirm if this justification for second/third/fourth options is sufficient and help me to understand what first option is...

Thank you.

  • Actually, you have $|a_n \sin n|\leq|a_n|$ hence $\sum a_n\sin n$ converges absolutely by comparison. 1. Note that $\sum_{m=n}^\infty a_m=\sum_{m=1}^\infty a_m- \sum_{m=1}^{n-1}a_m$.
  • – Julien Dec 24 '13 at 05:29
  • @julien : I have already done for absolute convergence of second option.... I was looking for just convergence.... Fourth optionn I was thinking of what you have written but that was not taking me to anywhere... –  Dec 24 '13 at 05:32
  • You missed the absolute value. And absolute convergence implies convergence. 1. So the series $\sum_{m=1}^\infty a_m$ converges. What does this mean?
  • – Julien Dec 24 '13 at 05:34
  • Oh yes... That was actually a typo.. :D.. absolute convergence implies convergence... Yes.. I have missed that point... I was sure that convergence need not imply absolute convergence and i was thinking absolute convergence also does not imply convergence...Face palm! –  Dec 24 '13 at 05:37
  • Ah! Absolute cv does imply cv. By the Cauchy criterion. – Julien Dec 24 '13 at 05:38
  • Fine fine... But I could not think of anything about first option.... How can you say that the series $\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}a_m$ converges.... –  Dec 24 '13 at 05:39
  • Suppose we have absolute convergence, and we are trying to look for convergence i.e., we need to have an $N\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $|a_n+a_{n+1}+a_{n+2}+\dots+a_{n+m}|<\epsilon$ for all $n>N$ and for all $p$ but then, $|a_n+a_{n+1}+a_{n+2}+\dots+a_{n+m}|\leq |a_n|+|a_{n+1}|+\dots+a_{n+p}$ but this is always less than $\epsilon$ as the series is absolutely convergent.... so, absolute convergenc implies convergence.. –  Dec 24 '13 at 05:46
  • Oh yes... Sorry for troubling you... I got it... $\sum_{m=1}^{\infty}a_m$ converges –  Dec 24 '13 at 05:47
  • The first one was answered here (and probably in some other places on this site): http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/616383/if-sum-a-k-is-convergent-is-limit-of-a-k-0 – Martin Sleziak Dec 24 '13 at 08:01
  • This question is related to the fourth bullet: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/255614/prove-that-sum-n-1-infty-a-n2-is-convergent-if-sum-n-1-infty-a – Martin Sleziak Dec 24 '13 at 08:03
  • @MartinSleziak Thank you for your link... That was useful.. :) –  Dec 25 '13 at 05:40
  • @PraphullaKoushik I found it going through the list of related questions (on the right). – Martin Sleziak Dec 25 '13 at 08:54