I assume everyone is familiar with propositional logic and its language.
Let $S$ be a set of wffs of propositional logic.
The set $S$ is said to be substitution-closed iff whenever $x$ is in $S$, then $f(x)$ is in $S$, where $f$ is a substitution. A set is said to be schematic iff it is the set of all substitutions of a formula.
These are definitions I coined myself. I have proven that every schematic set is a non-empty substitution-closed set. When I try to prove the converse, I get stuck. I am starting to think there is a counterexample. Can anyone confirm or deny my suspicions?