My lecturer went through this method for proving $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{1}{n^p} $ converges if $p>1$
Since $1/n^p > 0$ it implies that the sequence of partial sums $S_N$ is increasing.
So either $S_n$ is bounded above & converges or it diverges to $+\infty$
Then he went on to say if $\exists$ subseq $(S_{jN})$ that is bounded above: then $S_{jN}$ does not go to $+\infty$ if $n\to \infty$ which implies that $S_N$ does not go to infinity which implies $(S_N)$ converges
So in the proof we showed that a subsequence $S_{2^{N}-1}$ is bounded, and since it's increasing it converges, which is great. HOwever I don't understand the logic here, if a subsequence of $(S_N)$ converges, then why does that mean that $(S_N)$ converges? I'm aware that if $(S_N)$ converges then all subsequences of $(S_N)$ also converge to same limit, but I don't understand this proof as all he showed is that one particular subsequence converges, and then he concludes with $(S_N)$ converges.
If anyone could clear this up.. thank you