Why is $$\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x_i}f(tx_1, \dots, tx_n)=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial(tx_i)}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\cdot\dfrac{\partial(tx_i)}{\partial x_i}=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\cdot\dfrac{\partial(tx_i)}{\partial x_i}$$ here ? I think it is NOT equal as, I have this answer, and according to it, I should go this way: $$\begin{align}\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial(tx_i)}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\cdot\dfrac{\partial(tx_i)}{\partial x_i}&=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial(tx_i)}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\cdot\dfrac{\partial x_i}{\partial x_i}\cdot\dfrac{\partial(tx_i)}{\partial x_i}\\&=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\cdot\dfrac{\partial x_i}{\partial(tx_i)}\cdot\dfrac{\partial(tx_i)}{\partial x_i}\\&=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\cdot\dfrac{t}{t}\\&=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\\& \neq\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}(tx_1,\dots,tx_n)\cdot\dfrac{\partial(tx_i)}{\partial x_i}\end{align}$$
Please help! I am stuck in my Microeconomics course.