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Why it is sufficient to compute the derivative of a function f(t) at the point t=0 to obtain the derivative at a point t'>0 ? Is there a relation between the two derivatives at such points?

SAKLY
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1 Answers1

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It's not sufficient. For instance, the functions $f(t) = t^2$ and $g(t) = t^3$ both have derivative zero at $t = 0$, but their derivatives (and values) elsewhere are rather different.

John Hughes
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