I have seen that in the book that (where $\operatorname{Aut}(U)$ is the set of all univalent bi-holomorphic mappings from $U$ onto $U$) $$\operatorname{Aut}(\Im z>0)=\left\{\frac{az+b}{cz+d}, a,b,c,d\in\mathbb{R}, ad-bc>0\right\}.\tag1$$ And it was derived from the fact that the set of all bi-holomorphic mappings from $\Im z>0$ to $D(0,1)$ (the unit disk) is $$w=e^{i\theta}\frac{z-a}{z-\bar a},\ \theta\in \mathbb{R},\ \Im a>0.$$
I want to show (1) as follows. Let $f\in \operatorname{Aut}(\Im z>0)$, then $$\frac{f(z)+i}{f(z)-i}$$ should also be bi-holomorphic from $\Im z>0$ to $D(0,1)$, and thus $$\frac{f(z)+i}{f(z)-i}=e^{i\theta}\frac{z-a}{z-\bar a}$$ for some $\theta\in\mathbb{R}, \Im a>0$. From which, I deduce $$f(z)=\frac{i(1+e^{i\theta})z-iae^{i\theta}-i\bar a}{(1-e^{i\theta})z+ae^{i\theta}-\bar a}.$$ By multiplying both denumeraotr and numerator with $1-e^{-i\theta}$, we get the desired form $$\frac{az+b}{cz+d}$$ with the coefficients $a,b,c,d$ all to be real. However, I compute $$ad-bc=2i(a-\bar a)(e^{i\theta}-1)$$ is not real, using pencil-paper or Mathematica. What's wrong with it?