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It may be quite a basic and common thing but I haven't found much after a while of searching and I failed to figure that myself...

Let's have a (connected) set $M$ and let $\text{diam}(M)$ be its diameter. How big can his area be?

Or in other words - evaluate this expression: $$\sup_{M}\left\{\frac{\text{area}(M)}{\text{diam}^{2}(M)}\right\}$$

For example let $M$ be a square with side $a$. Then:

$$\frac{\text{area}(\text{square})}{\text{diam}^{2}(\text{square})} = \frac{a^{2}}{\left( a\sqrt{2} \right)^{2}} = \frac{1}{2}$$

I'm really looking forward to see a (sketch of a) proof of such thing because no matter how simple it looks I just don't even know where to start...

Jeyekomon
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I found a great one-page proof at http://www.math.ntnu.no/~hanche/blog/isodiametric.pdf.

They assume that one point on the boundary is at the origin and that the shape lies in the upper half plane. They then use polar coordinates for the area:

$\int_0^{\pi} 1/2 (f(\theta))^2 d\theta$ and rewrite it as

$1/2\int_0^{\pi/2} (f(\theta))^2 +(f(\theta+\pi/2))^2 d\theta$

The integrand is the squared length between the points at $\theta$ and $\theta+\pi/2$ on the boundary, which is at most $d^2$. So the greatest the area can be is $(\pi d^2)/4$.

The link has a great picture.

Brian Rushton
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  • It's interesting for me that the inequality has its own name... And the source you provided is great! Thank you. – Jeyekomon Jan 14 '14 at 15:24