$$S = 1 - \frac12 + \frac13 - \frac14 + \frac15 - \frac16 + \frac17 - \frac18 + \frac19 - \frac1{10} + \frac1{11} - \frac1{12}\ldots\text{(to infinity)}$$
Rearranged, this series looks like: $$S = \left(1 - \frac12\right) - \left(\frac14\right) + \left(\frac13 - \frac16\right) - \left(\frac18\right) + \left(\frac15 - \frac1{10}\right) - \left(\frac1{12}\right) + \left(\frac17 - \frac1{14}\right) \ldots\text{(to infinity)}\\ S = \left(\frac12\right) - \left(\frac14\right) + \left(\frac16\right) - \left(\frac18\right) + \left(\frac1{10}\right) - \left(\frac1{12}\right) + \left(\frac1{14}\right) \ldots\text{(to infinity)}$$
This rearranged infinite series contains every number that the original infinite series had.
Further,
$$ 2S = 1 - \frac12 + \frac13 - \frac14 + \frac15 - \frac16 + \frac17 - \frac18 + \frac19 - \frac1{10} + \frac1{11} - \frac1{12} \ldots\text{(to infinity)}$$
Thus: $2S = S$
$2 = 1$
Mathematics disproven. Sorry.
Jokes aside, I know that infinite series can be calculated in different ways to get different results. My question is: Why? While it makes sense with Grandi's and similar series, it doesn't make sense to me for a series whose final term is $\frac1\infty = 0$.