I am trying to solve following expectation
$E \left [B^2_s \left( \int^t_s B_u dB_u \right)^2 \right]$
with $0 \leq s \leq t \leq T$ and $B_t$ a 1-dim. Brownian motion. Further using $E \left[ . \vert \mathcal{F}_s \right]$ is a hint.
I started by introducing the conditional expectation and seperating the integral
$E \left[ B^2_s E \left[ \left( \int^t_0 B_u dB_u - \int^s_0 B_u dB_u \right)^2 \vert \mathcal{F}_s \right] \right]$
I am not sure about the next step, but I think $\left( \int^t_0 B_u dB_u \right)_t$ are square integrable martingales and I can write
$E \left[ B^2_s E \left[ \left( \int^t_0 B_u dB_u \right)^2 - \left( \int^s_0 B_u dB_u \right)^2 \vert \mathcal{F}_s \right] \right]$
and with $\int^t_0 B_u dB_u = \dfrac{1}{2}(B^2_t - t)$
$E \left[ B^2_s E \left[ \left( \dfrac{1}{2}(B^2_t - t) \right)^2 - \left( \dfrac{1}{2}(B^2_s - s) \right)^2 \vert \mathcal{F}_s \right] \right]$
Any next step of making the equation easier did not have any real result.
Thank you for your help !
Could you maybe check my thoughts and see if they are correct?
As you stated $M_t$ is a martingale with quadratic variation $\langle M, M \rangle_t$. Therefore we know that $M^2_t - \langle M,M \rangle_t$ is also a martingale.
– user113685 Jan 17 '14 at 17:58And $E(E(M^2_t \vert \mathcal{F}_s)) = E(\langle M,M \rangle_t)$
Thank you so much for your fast answer, it was of great help !
– user113685 Jan 17 '14 at 17:59