I'm having a rather simple question:
Lets say a function preserves neighborhoods iff: $N\in\mathcal{N}_x \Rightarrow f^{-1}(N)\in\mathcal{M}_x$
and a function preserves closeness iff: $x\parallel A \Rightarrow f(x)\parallel f(A)$
I want to show that, in fact, these are equivalent.
So far the second property is the same as: $f(\overline{A})\subseteq \overline{f(A)}$
I already passed a proof that a function preserves neighborhoods iff it is continuous in the usual sense: $V\in\mathcal{T} \Rightarrow f^{-1}(V)\in\mathcal{S}$
...while $x\parallel A$ is meant to mean $x\in\overline{A}$.