I suspect I'll post my own answer to this question shortly, but it may be of interest to see what answers others post.
A theorem found in Feller's famous book and elsewhere says that if $X,Y$ are independent random variables and $X+Y$ is normally distributed, then $X$ and $Y$ are normally distributed.
Is there a similar result for binomial distributions? I.e. can we show that $$ \begin{align} & \text{if }X_1,X_2\text{ are independent and } X_1+X_2\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(n,p) \\ & \text{then for some }n_1,n_2,\quad X_i\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(n_i,p)\text{ for }i=1,2\text{ ?} \end{align} $$
PS ADDED LATER: Could we assume throughout that random variables considered here take values in $\{0,1,2,3,\ldots\}$.
In fact, I suspect we can get a stronger statement: $$ \begin{align} & \text{if } X_1+X_2\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(n,p)\text{ then $X_1,X_2$ are independent} \\ & \text{and then for some }n_1,n_2,\quad X_i\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(n_i,p)\text{ for }i=1,2. \end{align} $$ Is that also true?
Both of these are converses of a proposition found in every textbook.