Call me stupid, but I would like to know whether my understanding is okay:
$$\frac{d}{dx}\left(\int_0^x f(s)ds\right)=\frac{d}{dx}F(x)=f(x)$$
Call me stupid, but I would like to know whether my understanding is okay:
$$\frac{d}{dx}\left(\int_0^x f(s)ds\right)=\frac{d}{dx}F(x)=f(x)$$
I didn't find this at all intuitive until very recently when I worked through the following to get happy with it. Start with definition of a derivative
$$\frac{dg}{dx} = \lim_{h\to0} \frac{g(x+h)-g(h)}{h} $$
then
$$\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^xf(s)\;ds =\lim_{h\to0} \;\left[\frac{\int_0^{x+h}f(s)\;ds\;-\;\int_0^{x}f(s)\;ds}{h}\right]$$
$$= \lim_{h\to0} \;\left[\frac{\int_x^{x+h}f(s)\;ds}{h}\right]$$
$$= \lim_{h\to0} \;\left[\frac{f(x) h + O(h^2)}{h}\right]$$
$$= \lim_{h\to0}\; [f(x) + O(h)]$$
$$=f(x)$$
This is the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. There is a sequence of Khan Academy videos on this starting here.
This is precisely the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. And $f(x)$ should be continuous on some closed interval.