Show that if $0\leq x < n, n \geq 1$, and $n\in\mathbb{N}$ then
$$ 0 \leq e^{-x} - \left( 1 - \frac{x}{n} \right)^n \leq \frac{x^2e^{-x}}{n}. $$
By using induction.
Progress: Decided to split the problem up into two parts, (i) and (ii).
(i) $ 0 \leq e^{-x} - \left ( 1- \frac{x}{n} \right ) ^ n $.
(i) $e^{-x} - \left ( 1- \frac{x}{n} \right ) ^ n \leq \frac{x^2e^{-x}}{n}.$
For part (i),
Base case: (n = 1)
We have
$$\begin{align} 1-x &\leq e^{-x} \\ e^{-x} +x -1 & \geq 0. \end{align}$$
Differentiating gives,
$$ \begin{align} \frac{d}{dy} \left ( e^{-x} +x -1 \right )& = -e^{-x} +1 \\ & \geq 0 \end{align}$$ for $0 \leq x <1$. Thus the function is non-decreasing on $\left[ 0,1 \right )$ which implies $e^{-x} + x -1 \geq 0 $ thus,$ 1-x \leq e^{-x}$ on the required interval. (my calc isn't very strong but I assume this is the right process to prove one function is $\geq$ another).
Induction step: Assume formula holds for some arbitrary positive integer $n=k$, that is $$0 \leq e^{-x} - \left( 1-\frac{x}{k} \right )^k$$ using this, we must now show that the formula holds for $n=k+1$, i.e.
$$ 0 \leq e^{-x} - \left ( 1- \frac{x}{k+1} \right ) ^{k+1}. $$
So how on earth do we use the induction step in get the required equation for $n=k+1?$