I have a problem with my solution. $$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{2x}{e^{x}-e^{-x}}dx=\int_{0}^{a}\frac{2x}{e^{x}-e^{-x}}dx+\int_{a}^{\infty}\frac{2x}{e^{x}-e^{-x}}dx$$
So in first integral, if I compare it with : $ \frac{1}{\sqrt x}$ I have: $$\lim_{x \to 0^+ }\frac{\frac{2x}{e^{x}-e^{-x}}}{\frac{1}{\sqrt x}} =0$$ and I also know that $\int_{0}^{a}\frac{1}{\sqrt x}$ converges. And I can conclude that my integral also converges. But if I choose to compare it with $\frac{1}{x^2}$ , again I get $$\lim_{x \to 0^+ }\frac{\frac{2x}{e^{x}-e^{-x}}}{\frac{1}{x^2}} =0$$ but now I conclude that my integral diverges together with $\int_{0}^{a}\frac{1}{x^2}$. What the right solution and what is wrong with my solution??! Thanks a lot!