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Suppose there is a bacterium in a bottle, it has $\frac{1}{3}$ chance to die and it has $\frac{2}{3}$ chance to split into 2 individuals, and the new individuals will follow this rule and so on. So here is the question, what is the probability that all bacteria are dead in the bottle?

Denote by p the probability that all the bacteria are dead. $$ p =\frac{1}{3}+\frac{2}{3}p^2$$ and it gives that $p = 0.5$ or $1$, so what is the next step? Which one is the answer? thanks.

Ben Grossmann
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  • The value of $p$ depends on the generation. In the zeroth generation (at start) it is 0, after one unit of time it is $1/3$, ... – vonbrand Feb 13 '14 at 14:29
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    @vonbrand I think this is asking for what happens after "infinitely many generations". There is a meaningful way to answer this. – Ben Grossmann Feb 13 '14 at 14:46
  • See this link for an explanation – Ben Grossmann Feb 13 '14 at 14:48
  • The answer is $1/2$ in this case, though that's certainly not obvious. – Ben Grossmann Feb 13 '14 at 14:58
  • @Omnomnomnom Note that the explanation in your link simplifies by dividing the equation by (the sought probability) $P$, saying "since $P\neq0$", without justification. In other words they are throwing out one of the two solutions of the quadratic equation, just because they don't like it. Certainly the explanation could be more rigourous. – Marc van Leeuwen Feb 13 '14 at 15:05
  • @MarcvanLeeuwen I agree. I was just providing that to bring vonbrand up to speed. I'm typing an answer myself – Ben Grossmann Feb 13 '14 at 15:09
  • @Omnomnomnom Yes, I am saying that the probablity after infinitely many generations. Are there any justifications to show/prove that $p \neq 1$? – nanopotato Feb 13 '14 at 15:15

4 Answers4

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Another way to write this is as $$ p_{k}=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{2}{3}p_{k-1}^2, $$ or $$ p_{k}-p_{k-1}=\frac{2}{3}p_{k-1}^2-p_{k-1}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{2}{3}\left(p_{k-1}-1\right)\left(p_{k}-\frac{1}{2}\right), $$ where $p_{k}$ is the probability that a bacteria and all its descendants are dead after $k$ generations. So if $p_{k}\in[0,1/2)$, $p_{k+1}>p_{k}$ (that is, the probability increases with each additional generation), while if $p_{k}\in(1/2,1)$, $p_{k+1}< p_{k}$ (the probability decreases). From this you can see that there are exactly two fixed points, at $p=1/2$ and $p=1$, and that the fixed point at $p=1/2$ is the attractive one.

mjqxxxx
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This is a supercritical Galton-Watson process (supercritical meaning each individual has an average of more than one offspring). It's a classical result that such a process survives with positive probability, so your p cannot be 1 and must be 1/2. You can probably find a proof in many places; I know it's in Durrett's PTE.

Nate Eldredge
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So we know that if there is a valid probability $p$, it must satisfy the equation $$ p = \frac 13 + \frac 23 p^2 $$ That is: for the first cell that splits, we note that in order for all trace of the cell to be gone after a certain time, either the first cell has to die, or the first cell splits and the trace of the offspring is gone after a certain time.

For any cell, $q$ is the probability that all trace of the cell is gone after a long enough time.

So, we conclude that $p$ satisfies the above equation. We have $$ 2 p^2 - 3p + 1 = 0\\ (2p - 1)(p - 1) = 0\\ p = \frac 12, \quad p = 1 $$ So why can't the probability be $p=1$? The answer really lies in the "limit".

What is the probability that all cells are gone after one generation? That's just $$ p_1 = 1/3 $$ Two generations? $$ p_2 = 1/3 + 2/3\cdot (1/3)^2 $$ Three generations? $$ p_3 = 1/3 + 2/3 \cdot (1/3 + 2/3\cdot (1/3)^2)^2 $$ And so on $$ p_4 = 1/3 + 2/3 \cdot (1/3 + 2/3\cdot (1/3 + 2/3\cdot (1/3)^2)^2)^2 $$

Ben Grossmann
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$\newcommand{\+}{^{\dagger}}% \newcommand{\angles}[1]{\left\langle #1 \right\rangle}% \newcommand{\braces}[1]{\left\lbrace #1 \right\rbrace}% \newcommand{\bracks}[1]{\left\lbrack #1 \right\rbrack}% \newcommand{\ceil}[1]{\,\left\lceil #1 \right\rceil\,}% \newcommand{\dd}{{\rm d}}% \newcommand{\down}{\downarrow}% \newcommand{\ds}[1]{\displaystyle{#1}}% \newcommand{\equalby}[1]{{#1 \atop {= \atop \vphantom{\huge A}}}}% \newcommand{\expo}[1]{\,{\rm e}^{#1}\,}% \newcommand{\fermi}{\,{\rm f}}% \newcommand{\floor}[1]{\,\left\lfloor #1 \right\rfloor\,}% \newcommand{\half}{{1 \over 2}}% \newcommand{\ic}{{\rm i}}% \newcommand{\iff}{\Longleftrightarrow} \newcommand{\imp}{\Longrightarrow}% \newcommand{\isdiv}{\,\left.\right\vert\,}% \newcommand{\ket}[1]{\left\vert #1\right\rangle}% \newcommand{\ol}[1]{\overline{#1}}% \newcommand{\pars}[1]{\left( #1 \right)}% \newcommand{\partiald}[3][]{\frac{\partial^{#1} #2}{\partial #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\pp}{{\cal P}}% \newcommand{\root}[2][]{\,\sqrt[#1]{\,#2\,}\,}% \newcommand{\sech}{\,{\rm sech}}% \newcommand{\sgn}{\,{\rm sgn}}% \newcommand{\totald}[3][]{\frac{{\rm d}^{#1} #2}{{\rm d} #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\ul}[1]{\underline{#1}}% \newcommand{\verts}[1]{\left\vert\, #1 \,\right\vert}$ Let's $p_{-}$ and $p_{+}$ the probability a bacteria dies or split in two bacteria, respectively. The probability of a bacteria generates $n$ bacteria will be $$P_{n} = p_{-}\delta_{n,0}\ +\ p_{+}\delta_{n,2}\tag{1}$$ Given a population of $N$ bacterias we'll calculate the probability ${\cal P}_{N \to N'}$ the population will be $N'$. ${\cal P}_{N \to N'}$ is given by:

\begin{align} {\cal P}_{N \to N'}&=\sum_{n_{1}=0}^{\infty}P_{n_{1}}\ldots \sum_{n_{N}=0}^{\infty}P_{n_{N}}\,\delta_{n_{1} + \cdots + n_{N},N'} \\[3mm]&=\sum_{n_{1}=0}^{\infty}P_{n_{1}}\ldots\sum_{n_{N}=0}^{\infty}P_{n_{N}}\ \overbrace{\int_{\verts{z} = 1}{1 \over z^{-n_{1} - \cdots - n_{N} + N' + 1}} \,{\dd z \over 2\pi\ic}}^{\ds{\delta_{n_{1} + \cdots + n_{N},N'}}} \\[3mm]&=\int_{\verts{z} =1}\pars{\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}P_{n}z^{n}}^{N}\, {1 \over z^{N' + 1}}\,{\dd z \over 2\pi\ic} =\int_{\verts{z} =1}\pars{p_{-} + p_{+}z^{2}}^{N}\,{1 \over z^{N' + 1}} \,{\dd z \over 2\pi\ic} \end{align} where we used expression $\pars{1}$.

\begin{align} {\cal P}_{N \to N'}&= \int_{\verts{z} = 1}\sum_{\ell = 0}^{N} {N \choose \ell}p_{-}^{N - \ell}\pars{p_{+}z^{2}}^{\ell}\,{1 \over z^{N' + 1}} \,{\dd z \over 2\pi\ic} \\[3mm]&=\sum_{\ell = 0}^{N}{N \choose \ell}p_{-}^{N -\ell}p_{+}^{\ell}\ \overbrace{\int_{\verts{z} = 1}{1 \over z^{N' + 1 - 2\ell}}\,{\dd z \over 2\pi\ic}} ^{\ds{\delta_{2\ell,N'}}}\tag{2} \end{align}

From expression $\pars{2}$ we conclude: $$ {\cal P}_{N \to N'} =\left\lbrace% \begin{array}{lcl} {N \choose N'/2}p_{-}^{N - N'/2}\ p_{+}^{N'/2} & \mbox{if} & N'\ \mbox{is even and}\ 0 \leq N' \leq 2N \\[2mm] 0, &&\mbox{otherwise} \end{array}\right. $$

For the present question $$ p_{-}^{N - N'/2}\ p_{+}^{N'/2} = \pars{1 \over 3}^{N - N'/2}\pars{2 \over 3}^{N'/2} = {2^{N'/2} \over 3^{N}} $$ $$\color{#00f}{\large% {\cal P}_{N \to N'} =\left\lbrace% \begin{array}{lcl} {1 \over 3^{N}}\,{N \choose N'/2}2^{N'/2} & \mbox{if} & N'\ \mbox{is even and}\ 0 \leq N' \leq 2N \\[2mm] 0, &&\mbox{otherwise} \end{array}\right.} $$

With this expression for ${\cal P}_{N \to N'}$ we can answer many questions about the bacteria population.

Felix Marin
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