From a paper that I have been reading, I have:
$n \pi = +\sqrt{(+k_2+\sqrt{k_2^2-4k_3k_1}) \times \dfrac{1}{2k_1}}$; where
$k_1 = (1-\dfrac{\alpha^2 \lambda^2}{\zeta^2})$;
$k_2= \lambda^2[\Omega + \dfrac{1-\Omega \alpha^2 \lambda^2}{\zeta^2}+\alpha^2]$; and
$k_3=\lambda^2(\dfrac{\lambda^2 \Omega}{\zeta^2}-1)$
Now, the author of the paper claims directly without any explanation whatsoever, that the first expression can be simplified to:
$B_1\lambda^4 - B_2\lambda^2 +1 = 0$; where
$B_1 = \dfrac{\Omega}{\zeta^2}(\dfrac{1+\alpha^2n^2\pi^2}{n^4 \pi^4})$; and
$B_2 = (\dfrac{1+\alpha^2n^2\pi^2}{n^4 \pi^4}) (\dfrac{1}{\zeta^2}+\dfrac{1}{n^2 \pi^2}) + \dfrac{\Omega}{n^2 \pi^2}$
I don't understand how the author was able to separate $\lambda$ out this neatly, and into the form given above. I have been going at this for hours, and the algebraic manipulations involved are driving me insane. Can someone tell me how to go about this, so as to obtain the equation in terms of $\lambda$, with $B_1$ and $B_2$ as coeffecients, as given above?