If U and V are topological subgroups of a topological group G, such that G=UV, and V normal in G, we know that the map $t: \frac{U}{U\cap V}\to \frac{UV}{V}, x(U\cap V)\mapsto xV$ is a isomorphism of groups. But this map is not a homeomorphism in general, right? Does anybody have a counterexample? Which properties for U and V we need such that t is a an open map? I would imagine, if you consider $f:U\to \frac{UV}{V}, x\mapsto xV$ continuous homormophism of top. groups, $\pi_{U\cap V}:U\to \frac{U}{U\cap V}, x\mapsto x(U\cap V)$ surjective continuous quotientmap, s.t. $t\circ \pi_{U\cap V}=f$, in the case that f is open (that isn't true in general), then t has to be open? Best.
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algebraic-topologyis valid here (which usually refers to algebraic invariants of topological spaces like homotopy or homology groups). Not sure it's invalid, either. – Feb 21 '14 at 08:13