Letting $x=e^u$, the given inequality is equivalent to
$$1\le {e^u-e^{-u}\over2u}\qquad\text{for }-\infty\lt u\lt\infty$$
(with $u\not=0$ understood, in line with the tacit assumption $x\not=1$). Since the right hand side is invariant under $u\to-u$, it suffices to show
$$u\le{1\over2}(e^u-e^{-u})\qquad\text{for }0\lt u$$
Now at some point we have to use a definition of the exponential function. Let's use
$$e^u=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+{u\over n}\right)^n=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+u+{n\choose2}\left({u\over n}\right)^2+\cdots+{n\choose n}\left({u\over n}\right)^n\right)$$
Now clearly, when $0\lt u$,
$$u\lt u+{n\choose3}\left({u\over n}\right)^3+{n\choose 5}\left({u\over n}\right)^{5}+\cdots={1\over2}\left(\left(1+{u\over n}\right)^n-\left(1-{u\over n}\right)\right)^n$$
for any $n$, since all the extra terms are positive. (The sum with the binomial coefficients terminates at the last odd number less than or equal to $n$.) Hence $u$ is less than or equal to the limit of the right hand side, which, by definition, is equal to ${1\over2}(e^u-e^{-u})$.