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let $i^2=-1,a>0$, show that $$arg((1+ia)(2+ia)(3+ia)\cdots(n+ia))=\arctan{\dfrac{a}{1}}+\arctan{\dfrac{a}{2}}+\cdots+\arctan{\dfrac{a}{n}}$$

I can't How prove this equation,Thank you

because $n=1$.we have $$(1+ia)=\arctan{a}\Longleftrightarrow \tan{(1+ia)}=a?$$ then I can't.Thank you

math110
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1 Answers1

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let $$k+ia=r_ke^{i\theta_k}=r_k(\cos \theta_k+i\sin \theta_k)$$ where $\theta_k=\arctan(\frac{a}{k})$ is the arguement of the term. now what do you get in the arguement part when you multiply all the terms. you get a $r_1r_2\cdots r_ne^{i(\theta_1+\theta_2+\cdots+\theta_n)}$

Suraj M S
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