Can someone comment on the following as to whether this partial fractions can be true or not? I'm concerned I've come across a trick question.
1) $\frac{x(x^2+4)}{x^2-4} = \frac{A}{x+2} + \frac{B}{x-2}$
Reason would lead me to believe the answer is yes, but mathematically I'm unsure if I'm correct?
If we take the original function...
$\frac{x(x^2+4)}{x^2-4}$
... multiply out the brackets and use long division, I get...
$x + \frac{8x}{x^2-4}$
Factorising the denominator gives us (x+2)(x-2), so in partial fractions we get...
2) $\frac{x(x^2+4)}{x^2-4} = x + \frac{A}{x+2} + \frac{B}{x-2}$
However, reason tells me that since $x = \frac{x(x+2)}{x+2}$ then equation 1, the value of A can be $x(x+2)$ plus the value of A in equation 2. i.e. Thus converting equation 2 to be...
2.1) $\frac{x(x^2+4)}{x^2-4} = \frac{x(x+2) + A}{x+2} + \frac{B}{x-2}$
So basically what I'm asking is can the partial fractions be altered in these ways? Or is there a trick I'm missing somewhere?