I have the following formula -
$Var(\overline{X}) = Var(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i) = \frac{1}{n^2}\sum_{i=1}^n Var(X_i)$
I know that the variance of the sum of independent random variables is equal to the sum of the variances of the random variables but I don't see where the $\frac{1}{n^2}$ is coming from? Why isn't it $\frac{1}{n}$?