Given:
$$H:((A \cup B) \to \{ 0,1\} ) \to ((A \to \{ 0,1\} ) \times (B \to \{ 0,1\} ))$$
$$H = \lambda f \in (A \cup B) \to \{ 0,1\} .\left\langle {\lambda a \in A.f(a),\lambda b \in B.f(b)} \right\rangle$$
Based on @Brian M. Scott answer we know that $H$ is injective, but not surjective, and therefore, $H$ isn't invertible.
How does it tell us that $A\cap B = \emptyset$?