question http://s30.postimg.org/6jnj4ie75/Untitled.png
I'm thinking that I need to do a proof by counter example? Is it possible to use Rolle's theorem:
f is cts on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b) and f(a)=f(b), so there exists a c in (a,b) such that f'(c)=0.
Thanks
My answer:
Assume there exists c,d in (0,1) (c not equal to d) such that f'(c)=f'(d)=0.
$f'(x)=3x^2-3$
$f'(c)=3c^2-3$ so c=1 or -1. Contradiction.
$f'(d)=3c^2-3 $ so d=1 or -1. Contradiction.