I have the following question on distributive property. If I multiply $3$ to the given expression $\frac{1}{3}\pi r^2h$.
Question: $3\cdot\frac{1}{3}\pi r^2h$
Based on what I understand for distributive property, I should take $3$ and multiply by every single term in the expression and I should expect $3\cdot\frac{1}{3} + 3\pi + 3r^2 + 3h$
However i did a check against Microsoft Mathematics is return the following answer $\pi r^2h$
Why is it so?