Or, solutions given as $\frac{a}{b},$ beginning with a fake one with denominator zero,
$$ \frac{1}{0},\frac{0}{1},\frac{-1}{4},\frac{-4}{15},\frac{-15}{56},\frac{-56}{209},\frac{-209}{780},\frac{-780}{2911}, $$
As you can see, both the sequence of numerators and the sequence of denominators satisfy $$ x_{n+2} = 4 x_{n+1} - x_n. $$
The way I found this was a bit intricate, but a proof, by induction, that these keep working is easy. By switching to a negative sign for convenience, so $$ a^2 - 4 a b + b^2 = 1 $$ we get (all) solutions as consecutive values in the sequence
$$ -1,0,1,4,15,56,209,780,2911,\ldots $$
The reason they probably feel this is suitable for a contest is that the $4$ does not really matter: The solutions to
$$ a^2 - 5 ab + b^2 = 1 $$ are consecutive numbers in
$$ -1,0,1,5,24,115,551,2640,12649, \ldots $$
satisfying $$ x_{n+2} = 5 \, x_{n+1} - x_n. $$
For some positive $k > 2,$ the solutions to
$$ a^2 - k \, ab+b^2 = 1 $$
are consecutive numbers in $$ -1,0,1,k, \ldots $$
satisfying $$ x_{n+2} = k \, x_{n+1} - x_n. $$
EddiTtT: It turns out this is not that pretty when considering the continued fraction for $\sqrt {k^2-4},$ partly because of the difference between odd and even $k.$ In the Lagrange cycle method that I prefer, it works very well: $\langle 1,k,1 \rangle$ is not reduced, but, with $k > 2,$ the equivalent form $\langle 1,k-2,2-k \rangle$ is reduced, and the entire Lagrange cycle is the shortest possible, length 2:
$$ 0: \langle 1,k-2,2-k \rangle; \; \; \; 1: \langle 2-k,k-2,1 \rangle; \; \; \; 2: \langle 1,k-2,2-k \rangle; $$
Refresher course, why not. Given a discriminant $\Delta > 0$ but not a square, and integers such that $b^2 - 4 a c = \Delta,$ the form $\langle a,b,c \rangle$ refers to $$ f(x,y) = a x^2 + b x y + c y^2, $$ and this is called reduced if two conditions hold, $$ ac < 0 \; \mbox{and} \; \; b > |a+c|. $$ Probably not obvious, but these imply $|a|, b, |c| < \sqrt \Delta.$