I show below that $f(n)=n$ for any $n > 2014^{2014}$. My proof is very
Chinese, it uses the Chinese remainder theorem all the time.
The hypotheses on the function imply
$$
(n,m)=1 \Rightarrow (f(n),f(m))=1\,. \tag{1}
$$
There are infinitely many primes. In particular, there are sets
of $2014\times 2015$ distinct primes $(q_{ij})_{1\leq i\leq 2014,0\leq j\leq 2014}$
with $q_{ij} > 2014$ for any $i,j$. We call these sets $Q$-systems. For any
$Q$-system ${\cal Q}=(q_{ij})$, let us put
$$
\begin{array}{lcl}
A_{\cal Q} &=& \lbrace n\geq 1 \ | \ q_{ij}\ \text{divides}\ n+i \ \text{for any}\ i,j
\rbrace\,.
\end{array} \tag{2}
$$
If $n\in A_{\cal Q}$, then none of the $q_{ij}$ can divide $n$ (because otherwise they would have to divide also $i=(n+i)-i$, which is $\leq 2014$).
So by the Chinese remainder theorem, there is a $m>n$ such that
$m\equiv 1 \ ({\sf mod} \ n)$ and $m\equiv -j \ ({\sf mod} \ q_{ij})$ for all $i,j$. By construction
$m$ and $n$ are coprime, so $f(m)$ and $f(n)$ are coprime also
by $(1)$. Now by condition (ii) there is a $j_0\in\lbrace 0,1,\ldots ,2014\rbrace$ such that
$f(m)=m+j_0$, hence $f(m)$ is divisible by all the $q_{ij_0}(1\leq i\leq 2014)$.
So $q_{ij_0}$ does not divide $f(n)$ for any $i$, and hence $f(n)\neq n+i$.
The only possibility left is $f(n)=n$. We have therefore shown :
$$
\text{If}\ n\in A_{\cal Q} \ \text{for some}\ Q\text{-system}\ {\cal Q},
\ \text{then}\ f(n)=n. \tag{3}
$$
Since there are infinitely many primes, we can construct 2014 disjoint
$Q$-systems ${\cal Q}_1,{\cal Q}_2, \ldots,{\cal Q}_{2014}$. Then, using
the Chinese remainder theorem, we have an integer $a$ such that
$a+1\in A_{{\cal Q}_1}, \ldots ,a+2014\in A_{{\cal Q}_{2014}}$. If we denote
by $q$ the product of all the primes in all the ${\cal Q}_i$, any number $n$ congruent
to $a$ modulo $q$ will satisfy the same properties as $a$ : we will have
$n+i\in A_{{\cal Q}_i}$ for any $1\leq i\leq 2014$, and hence $f(n+i)=n+i$ by $(3)$. We have thus
shown :
$$
\text{There are constants} \ a,q \ \text{such that for any }\ n\ \text{with } n\equiv a \
({\sf mod}\ q), \ f(n+i)=n+i \ (1\leq i\leq 2014) \tag{4}
$$
Finally, let $l$ be a number such that $f(l)\neq l$. Then $f(l)>l$, and we may construct a sequence of iterates
$u_0=l,u_1=f(u_0),u_2=f(u_1),\ldots$, continuing as long as $f(u_{k})>u_k$. This sequence
has length at most $q-2014$ by $(4)$ above, so it must stop at some $k$ with $f(u_k)=u_k$.
We have $u_k=f(u_{k-1})=u_{k-1}+r$ with $1\leq r\leq 2014$. Then
$$
\begin{array}{lcl}
u_k &=& {\gcd}(f(u_{k-1}),f(u_k) ) \\
&\leq& {\gcd}(u_{k-1},u_{k})^{2014} \\
&=& {\gcd}(u_{k}-r,u_k)^{2014} \\
&=& {\gcd}(r,u_k)^{2014} \\
&\leq& r^{2014} \leq 2014^{2014}.
\end{array} \tag{5}
$$
So $l\leq 2014^{2014}$, which concludes the proof.
