Formulas:
- $\forall x A(x,x)$
- $\forall x,y,z ((A(x,y) \land A(y,z)) \rightarrow A(x,z))$
- $\forall x,y((A(x,y) \lor A(y,x)) \rightarrow \exists y \forall x A(y,x))$
What is the best way to show that the conjunction of the above formulas is satisfiable in an arbitrary structure with finite domain?
Remark: On the other hand there is both a counterexample and a satisfying interpretation in an infinite domain, namely the set of natural numbers. Counterexample: interpret $A$ as $\geq$ over $\mathbb{N}$. Satisfying interpretation: interpret $A$ as $\leq$ over $\mathbb{N}$. (Correct me if I am wrong here).
Thanks in advance!