When we have the following inequality:
$$\frac{a}{b+c} \ge \frac{d}{e+c},$$
with $a,b,c,d,e \in \mathbb R_{\ge 0}$
Then it seems to hold that
$$\frac{a}{b} \ge \frac{d}{e},$$
Is this correct? Does it also work in the other direction (iff)?
When we have the following inequality:
$$\frac{a}{b+c} \ge \frac{d}{e+c},$$
with $a,b,c,d,e \in \mathbb R_{\ge 0}$
Then it seems to hold that
$$\frac{a}{b} \ge \frac{d}{e},$$
Is this correct? Does it also work in the other direction (iff)?
$$\frac{\color{blue}{3}}{\color{blue}{2}}\lt\frac{\color{green}{2}}{\color{green}{1}}\quad\&\quad\forall\color{red}{c}\gt1,\quad\frac{\color{blue}{3}}{\color{blue}{2}+\color{red}{c}}\gt\frac{\color{green}{2}}{\color{green}{1}+\color{red}{c}}$$