So the question is something like this: If a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ has a Lebesgue measure 0 and HAS an area. Does that area have to be 0? Prove or disprove.
I know of counterexamples that don't even have an area defined but I figured that since the area exists there could be some way to connect it to the Heine-Borel theorem and conclude that, if there are countably infinite rectangles with a total area less than epsilon that cover the set, there has to be a finite subset with the same properties. I don't know how to prove that.