I've been trying something like..
Let us assume that $\frac{S_n}{n}$ converges to 0. That means that, $$\frac{S_{n+1}}{n+1}-\frac{S_n}{n}$$ converges to 0 too. But we can rewrite this as $$\frac{nX_{n+1}}{n(n+1)}-\frac{S_n}{n(n+1)}=\frac{X_{n+1}}{n+1}-\frac{1}{n+1}\cdot\frac{S_n}{n}$$ But from our assumption, the negative part of the above converges to 0, so we are left with $$\frac{X_{n+1}}{n+1}$$ and one would think that this should also converge to 0, but because $X_i$ does not have finite first moments (i.e. because $E[|X_i|]=\infty$), we cannot make such a claim so we have reached a contradiction, and thus our initial assumption is false, and $\frac{S_n}{n}$ does not converge to 0.