If $L$ is a Lie algebra, $\text{Rad}(L)$ denotes its largest solvable ideal. Then $L$ is reductive if $\text{Rad}(L) = Z(L)$ (the center of $L$).
An exercise in Humphreys asks: $L$ is reductive if and only if $L$ is a completely reducible $\text{ad}(L)$-module. Doesn't this latter criterion amount to saying that $L$ is a semisimple Lie algebra? I'm under this impression for the following reason. $\text{ad}(L)$ acts on $L$ by $\text{ad}(x)y := [x, y]$, right? This is exactly how $L$ acts on $L$ too, so I don't see why $L$ wouldn't have the same structure as an $L$-module as it does an $\text{ad}(L)$-module. The issue is that not all reductive Lie algebras are semisimple --- for example, if $L$ is (nonzero and) abelian then it is reductive but not semisimple.
So here's my "proof" that if $L$ is reductive, then $L$ is semisimple. We know $\text{Rad}(L) = Z(L)$, so $\text{ad}(L) \simeq L/Z(L) = L/\text{rad}(L)$ which is semisimple. Therefore every module for $\text{ad}(L)$ is completely reducible (Weyl's Theorem). In particular $L$ is completely reducible as a module for $\text{ad}(L)\simeq L/Z(L)$. But $Z(L)$ annihilates $L$, so the submodule structure of $L$ as an $L/Z(L)$-module and an $L$-module are exactly the same. Therefore $L$ is completely reducible.
Am I being too liberal with "$\simeq$"? Or maybe throwing around annihilators too sloppily?