I was wondering if someone could help me clarify something from my lecture notes. It concerns the last step. I was wondering why we test if
$\frac{\hat{\beta}}{\textrm{SE}(\hat{\beta}}<0$
and what the rejection rule is in this case. I am quite confused by this.

My own thoughts were to test $H_0:\beta=0$ against $H_1:\beta \neq 0$ using the $t$-statistic $\frac{\hat{\beta}}{\textrm{SE}(\hat{\beta}}$ (we compare this to the critical values of a $t$ distribution with $N-K$ degrees of freedom where $N$ is the number of observations and $K$ the number of parameters; here $K=3$ since we estimate $\beta,\tilde{\alpha}$ and $\tilde{\gamma}$). Then, if we do not reject $H_0$, this thus means that the model is the same as the pure linear trend model, which corresponds to the special case of $\rho=0$. Hence, if we do not reject $H_0:\beta=0$ then we do reject $H_0:\rho=1$.