For a nonzero number $x$, if $y=1-x+\frac{x^2}{2!}-\frac{x^3}{3!}+\dots$ and $z=-y-\frac{y^2}{2}-\frac{y^3}{3}-\dots$ then the value of $\ln (\frac{1}{1-e^z})$ is .....
I can see that $y=e^{-x}$ and $z=\ln {(1-y)}$. And, so $z=\ln(1-e^{-x})$. But how to go further?