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The improper integral we have is $$\int^{1}_{0} |\ln{x}|^{p}dx$$ how do I approach this? I've never done anything like this and can't find any notes on it.

Thanks

user2850514
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2 Answers2

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Substitute $u=ln(x)$ to obtain,

$$\int_{-\infty}^0|u|^pe^udu$$

Then by integration by parts it follows,

$$\int_{-\infty}^0|u|^pe^udu=\int_{-\infty}^0(-u)^pe^udu=[(-u)^pe^u]_{-\infty}^0+p\int_{-\infty}^0(-u)^{p-1}e^udu$$ Repeat this $p$ times to get,

$$\int_{-\infty}^0|u|^pe^udu=p!$$

Thorben
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  • I understand what you've done so this clearly exists for every $p>0$ Right? Ps. There is no need for a substitution to get the same result – user2850514 Apr 11 '14 at 13:47
  • Yes it seems to hold for every $p$. I know, but in this case I prefer this way to compute the integral... It is just a matter of preferences :D – Thorben Apr 11 '14 at 14:02
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Let $$I_p=\int_{0}^{1}|\log x|^p\mathrm{d}x.$$

Note that $$I_p=(-1)^p\int_{0}^{1}(\log x)^p\;\mathrm{d}x.$$ Start by $p=1$:

$$I_1=\int_{0}^{1}|\log x|^1\mathrm{d}x=-\int_{0}^{1}\log x\;\mathrm{d}x=-\left[x\log x-x\right]_{0}^{1}=-[-1-0]=1.$$ For $p=2$:

$$I_2=\int_{0}^{1}|\log x|^2\mathrm{d}x=\int_{0}^{1}(\log x)^2\;\mathrm{d}x=\left[(\log x-1)x\log x\right]_{0}^{1}-\int_{0}^{1}(\log x-1)\;\mathrm{d}x=\dotsc$$

Is this helps you?

zighalo
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