1

My question is similar, but not equal to this...Question on linearity of directional derivative

Let $f'_{h}(a)$ be the directional derivative. And for the function $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$

$f'_{h}(a)=\sum^n_{i=1}\frac{ \partial f}{\partial x_i}(a) \cdot h_i$

Is f differentiable at $a$?

1 Answers1

2

No, it isn't. The linked question gives a counterexample. But it is true if $$\lim_{t\to 0} \frac{f(a+th)-f(a)}{t}$$

converges uniformly for all $h$ in the unit ball.

Edit: I'll include a proof.

Put $v:=\frac{h}{\|h\|}$. Then we have $$\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)-Df(a)h}{\|h\|}=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(a+\|h\|v)-f(a)}{\|h\|}-Df(a)\left(\frac{h}{\|h\|}\right)= \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(a+\|h\|v)-f(a)}{\|h\|}-Df(a)v=0$$