2

I understand that the exponential functions are inverses, and would therefore map $x$ when formed as a composition, but I cannot find any formal mathmatical proofs. My thought process is: $$\log_b(b^{\log_b(x)}) = \log_b(x) \rightarrow \log_b(x)=\log_b(x) \rightarrow x=x$$ Is that the only way of going about it or are there other formal proofs?

Thanks!

Cortizol
  • 3,669
OpieDopee
  • 1,149
  • 1
  • 12
  • 30

3 Answers3

4

This is a tautology since $\log_b(x)$ is defined as the exponent $m$ such that $b^m = x$.

user141421
  • 2,538
3

By definition, if $A^x=B$, then $x=\log_AB$. Now, replace the value of x from the latter identity into the former.

Lucian
  • 48,334
  • 2
  • 83
  • 154
2

What exponent $a$ can you put on $b$ so that $b^a=x$? $\log_b(x)$ is just the name for an $a$ that makes $b^a$ be equal to $x$. So by definition $b^{\log_b(x)}=x$.