How does one prove that
(P ∨ Q) ∧ (P ∨ R) ⊢ P ∨ (Q ∧ R)
Is this a well formed proof?
(P ∨ Q) ∧ (P ∨ R) (premise)
(P ∨ Q)
(P ∨ R) (and-elimination)
~P-> Q
~P-> R (???)
~P (assumption)
Q
R (Modus Ponens)
Q ∧ R (and-introduction)
~P -> (Q ∧ R) (conditional proof, discarding assumption ~P)
P ∨ (Q ∧ R) (???)
How are you supposed to do it otherwise?
Thanks
EDIT: The first answer to this question does use this equivalence: Proof of the distributive law in implication?
Is it something that's acceptable in propositional logic?