I am working on my proof for class and I was wondering if this look ok?
Let $N$ be a normal subgroup of $G$ we want to show that $G/N$ is abelian, or $(aN)(aN) = abN = baN = (bN)(aN)$. Since $N$ contains all commutors, then let $aba^{-1}b^{-1}N = N$ for some $a,b \in G$ then, \begin{align*} aba^{-1}b^{-1}N &= N && \text{ Given}\\ ab(ba)^{-1}N &= N && \text{ Definition of inverse} \\ abN(ba)^{-1} &= N && \text{ since N is normal}\\ abN &= N(ba) && \text{ right multiply by ba}\\ abN &= baN && \text{ since N is normal}\\ \end{align*} Which is what we wanted to show.
We are using Abstract Algebra by Judson and I tried to mimic one of the proofs in the book plus add my reasons behind doing so.