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Problem: $$\iint_D \frac{1}{1+x^2+y^2} dx dy,$$ where $D=\left\{(x,y):0 \le x \le y\right\}$.

I got everything right, except the region. The book said $\pi / 4 \le \theta \le \pi /2$ and I wanted the region where $0 \le \theta \le \pi /4 $. Since I wrote up that $D$ was the region where $0 \le y$ and $0 \le x \le y$.

Cortizol
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jacob
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1 Answers1

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$x\le y$ means $r\cos\theta\le r\sin\theta$, or (assuming they are positive), $\tan\theta\ge 1$, so ${\pi \over 4}\le\theta\le{\pi\over 2}$.

asaelr
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  • So the area is not $0 \le y$ and $0 \le x \le y$? Oh I see now the last is $\le$. My fault. – jacob Apr 16 '14 at 11:12