I was going to ask this question, but I think I figured it out, so I thought I'd post my answer:
In this question of mine, a user's answer makes the following claim:
Suppose $r_n$ and $s_n$ are sequences of real numbers, converging to $r$ and $s$, respectively. Then we have $$ \frac{\sum_{j+k = M}r_js_k}{M+1} \xrightarrow{M\to\infty} rs. $$ How can we prove this?