Let $f(x,y)=\frac{1}{2}(x+y-1)(x+y-2)$ be a function of two positive integers. Prove that for any positive integer $z$ there exists a single pair $x,y$ such that $f(x,y)=z$.
Isn't this clearly wrong? E.g. for $z=5$, there can be no successive pairs of integers $a,a'$ such that $\frac{1}{2}aa'=5$?