I have a question about MLEs and their regarding to a certain distribution: the lognormal distribution.
$$ f_{X}(x ; \mu, \sigma)=\frac{1}{x \sigma \sqrt{2 \pi}} e^{-\frac{(\ln x-\mu)^{2}}{2 \sigma^{2}}}, \quad x>0 $$ And, I have that the expected value for the distribution is: $$ e^{\mu+\sigma^{2} / 2} $$ The MLE for the expected value and the variance are, respectively: $$ \widehat{\mu}=\frac{\sum_{k} \ln x_{k}}{n}, \quad \hat{\sigma}^{2}=\frac{\sum_{k}\left(\ln x_{k}-\widehat{\mu}\right)^{2}}{n} $$
Now, I'm confused since I need to show if the following are true for my mle for the expected value: consistent
I have that the mle is unbiased, but now, I am not so sure...and since I am dealing with an mle, how am I to show consistency?
Any help or references would be great!