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I'm trying to give a formal proof of $\exists x \forall y (y\notin x)$ from $\mathsf{ZF}$. I know I need to use $\mathsf{Comprehension}$ and $\mathsf{Set}$ $\mathsf{Existence}$. I was wondering if, I could do: \begin{align*} &\forall z\exists x \forall y (y\in x \longleftrightarrow y\in z \land t\ne t) \text{ Comprehension with $\phi(y)=``t\ne t"$ }\\ \\ &\exists x \forall y(y\in x \longleftrightarrow y\in \tau_z \land t\ne t) \text{ Universal Instantiation} \\ & \forall y (y\in \tau_x \longleftrightarrow y\in \tau_z \land t\ne t) \text{ Existential Instantiation fixing $\tau_x$}\\ & \forall y (y\in \tau_x \longleftrightarrow y\in \tau_z \land t\ne t)\longrightarrow (\tau_y\in \tau_x \longleftrightarrow \tau_y\in \tau_z \land t\ne t) \text{ Logical Axiom}\\ & (\tau_y\in \tau_x \longleftrightarrow \tau_y\in \tau_z \land t\ne t) \text{ Modus Ponens}\\ &(\tau_y\in \tau_x \longleftrightarrow \tau_y\in \tau_z \land t\ne t)\longrightarrow (t=t\longrightarrow \tau_y\notin \tau_x) \text{ Tautology}\\ & t=t \longrightarrow \tau_y \notin \tau_x \text{ Modus Ponens}\\ &t=t \text{ Logical Axiom}\\ &\tau_y \notin \tau_x \\ &\tau_y \notin \tau_x \longrightarrow \forall y( y\notin \tau_x) \text{ Generalizing universally, as $\tau_y$ was arbitrary}\\ & \forall y(y\notin \tau_x) \text{ Modus Ponens}\\ & \forall y (y\notin \tau_x) \longrightarrow \exists x \forall y (y\notin x) \\ &\exists x \forall y (y\notin x) \text{ Modus Ponens} \end{align*} What do I call the second to last line? Also no where in this proof did I use set existence, did I need to ? Also, in the middle I wrote: $\tau_y \notin \tau_x \longrightarrow \forall y(y\notin \tau_x)$--I know this is wrong because $\tau_y$ is in the language. In order to generalize universally, I have to show $\mathsf{ZF} \vdash_{\mathcal{L}'=\mathcal{L}\cup \{c\}} c\notin \tau_x$. (So maybe I'd have to halt everything I did several lines up). But, on the other hand, I feel everything I did is logically valid. Any advice?

EDIT
$\forall y (y\notin \tau_x) \longrightarrow \exists x \forall y (y\notin x)$ is Existential Generalization

Rustyn
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  • The second to last line looks like existential generalization. – David H May 03 '14 at 00:03
  • @DavidH Hey thanks. I feel I've just confused myself working on this silly problem. Do you see a problem with the tautology I used? I'm kinda worried about it – Rustyn May 03 '14 at 00:05
  • Also: $``\tau_y \notin \tau_x \longrightarrow \forall y( y\notin \tau_x) \text{ Generalizing universally, as $\tau_y$ was arbitrary}''$ doesn't seem like a valid application of UG – Rustyn May 03 '14 at 00:08
  • In the instance of Separation Ax (first line) you have to use $\varphi(y)$; the axiom is : $∀z∃x∀y(y \in x \leftrightarrow y \in z \land \varphi(y))$. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA May 03 '14 at 09:13
  • @Rustyn - I think it works; surely we have that $\nvDash P(x) \rightarrow \forall xP(x)$, but in this case $x \notin FV(τ_y∉τ_x)$. I would more simply move from $τ_y∉τ_x$ to $∀y(y∉τ_x)$ by Gen... – Mauro ALLEGRANZA May 03 '14 at 09:21
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA I meant $\phi(y)= t\ne t$ that's a typo. – Rustyn May 03 '14 at 17:50
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Should I have stated $\exists x (x=x)$ first? Otherwise I believe my existential instantiation is misapplied. – Rustyn May 03 '14 at 17:54

1 Answers1

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This is only a "long" comment, rewriting Rustyn's proof in first-order logic with equality, using the Natural Deduction proof system [see Dirk van Dalen, Logic and Structure (5th ed - 2013) ].

As per the OP's proof, we need the Axiom schema of Separation (or Specification).

From it :

$(∃x)(∀y)(y \in x \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land \varphi(y)) )$

with $\varphi(y) := y \ne y$, we have :

(1) $\mathsf {ZF} \vdash (∃x)(∀y)(y \in x \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) )$.

First comment

We know that at least one set exists, because in f-o logic we have $\vdash \exists x(x = x)$; the need to "validate" this principle is the "reason why" we assume in the "standard" semantics for f-o logic that the domain of interpretation must be not empty.

Having decided to develop our set theory in f-o logic, thus we have assumed that sets exist.

Having chosen the "standard" version of $\mathsf {ZF}$ without urelements (or atoms), also called "pure" set theory, we assume also that the domain contains only sets.

Thus, we have at least one set $a$ to start with in our "first application" of Separation.

end comment.

From (1), assume for $\exists$-E :

(2) $(∀y)(y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) )$

From (2), by $\forall$-E :

(3) $y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y)$.

Now we use the OP's tautological implication : $\mathcal A \leftrightarrow (\mathcal B \land \mathcal C) \vDash_{TAUT} \mathcal \lnot C \rightarrow \mathcal \lnot A$, to get :

(4) $y = y \rightarrow y \notin z$.

We have $\vdash y = y$;

thus, by modus ponens :

(5) $y \notin z$

and thus, by $\forall$-I :

(6) $\forall y(y \notin z)$, because $y$ is not free in (1)

Finally, by $\exists$-I [with (1) and the auxiliary assumption (2), with $z$ not free in (7)] :

(7) $\mathsf {ZF} \vdash \exists x \forall y(y \notin x)$.

Second comment

Having proved that a set $y$ such that ... exist, we may apply Extensionality to prove that it is unique.

Thus, we may introduce a new individual constant to "name" it : $\emptyset$.

Added - May, 4th

I'll try also with an Hilbert-style proof (more "in the spirit" of the OP's proof), following Herbert Enderton, A Mathematical Introduction to Logic (2nd - 2001), which uses modus ponens as sole rule of inference.

We start assuming (2) :

$(∀y)(y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) )$

and we apply the logical axiom n°2 : $\forall x \alpha \rightarrow \alpha[x/t]$ [see page 112] and modus ponens to get (3) as above :

$y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y)$.

The "tautological" step is the same; thus we have (4) :

$y = y \rightarrow y \notin z$

and by equality axiom n°5 [$y = y$, see page 112] and modus ponens we have (5) :

$y \notin z$.

Now we apply the Generalization Theorem [page 117] : If $\Gamma \vdash \varphi$ and $y$ does not occur free in any formula in $\Gamma$, then $\Gamma \vdash \forall y \varphi$.

Thus we may conclude (6) :

$\forall y(y \notin z)$, because $y$ is not free in (2).

Up to now, we have obtained the following derivation, which makes no use of $\mathsf {ZF}$ axioms :

$(∀y)(y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) ) \vdash \forall y(y \notin z)$.

We apply Deduction Theorem [page 118] to get :

$\vdash (∀y)(y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) ) \rightarrow \forall y(y \notin z)$

and then we apply the rule of page 116 : $\alpha(x) \rightarrow \exists y \alpha(y)$ and mp to conclude :

$\vdash (\exists w) [(∀y)(y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) ) \rightarrow \forall y(y \notin w) ]$.

The next step needs the rule $\vdash (\alpha \rightarrow \exists w \beta) \leftrightarrow \exists w(\alpha \rightarrow \beta)$, with $w$ not free in $\alpha$ [see Exercise 8, page 130], to derive y mp :

$\vdash (∀y)(y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) ) \rightarrow \exists w \forall y(y \notin w)$.

Now we need the rule : if $\Gamma \vdash \alpha \rightarrow \beta$, then $\Gamma \vdash (\exists x) \alpha \rightarrow \beta$, provided that $x$ is not free in $\beta$ nor in any formula in $\Gamma$ [it is a meta-theorem provable in Enderton's system through the Generalization Th].

We apply it with $\Gamma = \emptyset$, in order to conclude :

$\vdash (\exists z)(∀y)(y \in z \leftrightarrow (y \in a \land y \ne y) ) \rightarrow \exists w \forall y(y \notin w)$.

Finally we apply mp with the Separation axiom to get (up to renaming the bound variable) :

$\mathsf {ZF} \vdash \exists x \forall y(y \notin x)$.

  • This was the explanation i was hoping for. Thank you for hashing out some of my naiveties. By the way, I fixed some typos. – Rustyn May 03 '14 at 22:06
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    It may be worth commenting that $y \not= y$ is not, in many presentations, a formula in the language of ZFC, because the formal language of ZFC only includes $\in$, not $=$. There is a definitional extension of the language that defines $=$, which is commonly used. But, for the purposes of this answer, you could use any logically false formula that only uses $\in$, such as $(y \in y \land y \not\in y)$. – Carl Mummert May 04 '14 at 12:19
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    @CarlMummert - thanks for your comment; I know also of some presentation (Suppes, if I remember well) which assume $\emptyset$ as primitive in the language of set theory : in that case I can save a lot of space in my proof... – Mauro ALLEGRANZA May 04 '14 at 12:26
  • @Carl: For what it's worth, Jech, Kunen, Halbeisen and Kanamori all include $=$ either in the language or in the logic itself. – Asaf Karagila May 04 '14 at 14:43
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    @MauroALLEGRANZA Why do you think the axiom of separation is: $\exists x \forall y ( y\in x \longleftrightarrow x \in a \land \phi(y) )$--I've never seen it written like that before. I write it as: $\exists x \forall y ( y\in x \longleftrightarrow \textbf{y} \in a \land \phi(y) )$ – Rustyn May 07 '14 at 03:58
  • @Rustyn - you are right, thanks ! I've fixed it... – Mauro ALLEGRANZA May 08 '14 at 06:22
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    @Carl Extending Asaf's comment. (Almost) everybody in set theory includes $=$ as part of the logic. I find it old-fashioned to avoid it, and to have the theory use only $\in$ instead. – Andrés E. Caicedo May 08 '14 at 06:34