Let $G$ be a group, $B$ a $G$-module and $X$ an abelian group. Let $\Lambda:=\Bbb Z[G]$.
Serre states in his book local fields that we have the equality:
$$\operatorname{Hom}_\Lambda (B, \operatorname{Hom}_{\Bbb Z}(\Lambda, X)) = \operatorname{Hom}_\Bbb Z (B, X)$$
I know this must be easy, but I'm not sure if I'm seeing it for the right reason. Let $\phi\in \operatorname{Hom}_{\Bbb Z}(\Lambda, X), \lambda \in \Lambda$. To begin with, what is the $\Lambda$-module structure on $\operatorname{Hom}_{\Bbb Z}(\Lambda, X)$? Is it
$$\lambda\phi (\cdot)\mapsto \phi((\lambda)\,\cdot\,)?$$
Let $\Phi \in\operatorname{Hom}_\Lambda (B, \operatorname{Hom}_{\Bbb Z}(\Lambda, X))$. If the above is correct, then I get
$$\Phi (b) (\phi) (\lambda)=\Phi(b)(\lambda\phi)(1)=\lambda\Phi(b)(\phi)(1)$$
where the second equality follows from the fact that $\Phi$ is a $\Lambda$-hom. And I am stuck here.
Anyways, $\Bbb Z$-maps from $\Lambda$ to $X$ are determined by where you send each of the elements $G\ni g \mapsto x \in X$. So we have
$$\operatorname{Hom}_\Lambda (B, \operatorname{Hom}_{\Bbb Z}(\Lambda, X)) = \operatorname{Hom}_\Lambda (B, \operatorname{Hom}_{\Bbb Z}(G, X)) $$