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Show that the set $S= { x \in (0,1): \cos(\frac{1}{x}) = \pm 1}$ is countable.
From a practice paper. I understand that showing there is a surjection between Natural numbers and a set implies it is countable just unsure on how to do it.
Thanks

Matt
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2 Answers2

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$\cos\frac{1}{x}=\pm 1$ <=> $\frac{1}{x}=n\pi$ <=> $x=\frac{1}{n\pi}$

delta
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Hint: we can explicitly state the possible values of $x$. The values of $x$ that make $\cos(x)$ equal to $\pm 1$ are the reciprocals of integer multiples of $\pi$. From here, can you see how to create a correspondence between the natural numbers and the values of $x$?

ant11
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