Show that the set $S= { x \in (0,1): \cos(\frac{1}{x}) = \pm 1}$ is countable.
From a practice paper. I understand that showing there is a surjection between Natural numbers and a set implies it is countable just unsure on how to do it.
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Vincenzo Tibullo
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Matt
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One way is to use the Identity Theorem in Complex Analysis for the functions $\cos(\frac{1}{x}) \pm 1$ along with the easily proved fact that every uncountable subset of $(0,1)$ has at least one limit point in $(0,1).$ However, I suspect you want a more direct proof. – Dave L. Renfro May 07 '14 at 16:33
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Hint: we can explicitly state the possible values of $x$. The values of $x$ that make $\cos(x)$ equal to $\pm 1$ are the reciprocals of integer multiples of $\pi$. From here, can you see how to create a correspondence between the natural numbers and the values of $x$?
ant11
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