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I know that if covariance is zero then x and y are uncorrelated but does uncorrelated also imply covariance is zero?

user134785
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1 Answers1

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Yes, because

$$\text{Corr}(x,y)=\frac{\text{Cov}(x,y)}{\sqrt{V(x)V(y)}},$$

where $V$ is the variance.

JPi
  • 4,562