I know that if covariance is zero then x and y are uncorrelated but does uncorrelated also imply covariance is zero?
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This is true... Check here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uncorrelated – nullgeppetto May 15 '14 at 13:02
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Yes, because
$$\text{Corr}(x,y)=\frac{\text{Cov}(x,y)}{\sqrt{V(x)V(y)}},$$
where $V$ is the variance.
JPi
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