Hi: After looking around the internet and looking at solutions to similar questions, I was finally able to convince myself of the following mathematically.
If $G(\omega_{0}) = cos(\omega_{0} t)$, then the inverse fourier transform is such that
$ g(t_{0}) = 2 \pi \left[ \frac{\delta(t_{0} - t)}{2} + \frac{\delta( t_{0} + t)}{2} \right] $
Intutively, this means that an impulse at $t = t_{0}$ in the time domain multiplied by $2 \pi$ is equivalent to $cos(\omega_{0}t)$ in the frequency domain. I don't have any intuition for this and I think I'm confused by the fact that a fourier transform which is a representation in the frequency domain can still involve the time $t$.
I thought the "x-axis" in the frequency domain was $\omega$ so where does $t$ come into play ? Thanks for any wisdom here. The background is that I'm trying to learn this on my own by reading various books and articles so any insights are really appreciated. This particular example came from "Fourier Transforms For Pedestrians" which is a very nice textbook except that it sometimes skips steps that aren't always obvious to me. Thanks again. This site is an amazing facility for learning.