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I'm trying to show $2 < e^{1/(n+1)} + e^{-1/n}$.

I can show that $ 2 < e^{1/n} + e^{-1/(n+1)}$ since

$$2 \leq 2\cosh\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) = e^{1/n} + e^{-1/n} < e^{1/n} + e^{-1/(n+1)}$$

but I'm still having trouble with the other inequality. I though using $\cosh$ again might help but I can't get anywhere.

2 Answers2

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Lemma. If $xy=1$ then $e^{-x}+e^{-y} \ge \frac2e$, with equality iff $x=y=1$.

Applying this lemma with $x=\frac{n}{n+1}$ and $y=\frac{n+1}{n}$ yields $$ e^{1/(n+1)} + e^{-1/n} = e(e^{\frac1{n+1}-1} + e^{-\frac1n-1}) = e(e^{-n/(n+1)} + e^{-(n+1)/n}) > 2 $$ as desired.

Proof of lemma. [My previous proof of this lemma was wrong; it established the convexity of $e^{-e^t}$ on $(0,\infty)$ but then invoked it for $(-\infty,\infty)$. This proof is more technical but, I believe, correct.]

If $x<0$ then $e^{-x}+e^{-y} > e^{-x} > 1 > \tfrac2e$. From now on, assume $x>0$.

First, $e^{-x}+e^{-1/x}$ has a global minimum on $(0,\infty)$; here is a standard argument. Let $b>0$ be such that $e^{-x}+e^{-1/x}>\frac12(1+\frac2e)$ whenever $x>b$; such $b$ exists because $e^{-x}+e^{-1/x}\to 1 > \frac12(1+\frac2e)$ as $x\to\infty$. Similarly, let $a>0$ be such that $e^{-x}+e^{-1/x}>\frac12(1+\frac2e)$ whenever $0<x<a$. By continuity and compactness, $e^{-x}+e^{-1/x}$ attains a minimum $M$ for $x\in[a,b]$. Since $e^{-1}+e^{-1/1} = \frac2e < \frac12(1+\frac2e)$, we know that $1\in[a,b]$; thus also $M\le\frac2e<\frac12(1+\frac2e)$. Since $e^{-x}+e^{-1/x} > \frac12(1+\frac2e)$ for all $x\notin[a,b]$, it follows that $M$ is a global minimum.

Equivalently, $e^{-x}+e^{-y}$ has a global minimum on the curve $xy=1$, $x>0$. I will show that $e^{-x}+e^{-y}$ has only one critical point on this curve, namely $x=y=1$; it follows that this is the global minimum, as desired.

To find the critical points, we use Lagrange multipliers, which give the system $$ \left\{\begin{aligned} xy &= 1 \\ \lambda x &= e^{-y} \\ \lambda y &= e^{-x} \end{aligned}\right. $$ Thus $\lambda^2 = \lambda^2 xy = e^{-x-y}$, and so $e^{-2y} = \lambda^2 x^2 = x^2 e^{-x-y}$, which since $x>0$ yields $$ x = e^{(x-y)/2} $$ Since $xy=1$, we also have $$ y = e^{(y-x)/2} $$ If $x\ne y$, then by the inequality of the geometric and logarithmic means, $$ 1 = \sqrt{xy} < \frac{x-y}{\log x - \log y} = \frac{x-y}{\frac{x-y}2 - \frac{y-x}2} = 1 $$ which is absurd. Thus any critical point must satisfy $x=y$, as claimed.

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well, since

$$ \left(\frac1{4! n^4}-\frac1{5!n^5}\right)+\cdots+\left(\frac1{(4+2k)!n^{4+2k}} -\frac1{(4+2k+1)!n^{4+2k+1}}\right)>0 $$

and

$$ \left(\frac1{4! n^4}-\frac1{5!n^5}\right)+\cdots+\left(\frac1{(4+2k)!n^{4+k}} -\frac1{(4+2k+1)!n^{4+2k}}\right) +\frac1{(4+2k+2)!n^{4+2k+2}} >0 $$

then,

$$\sum_{k\geq4}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!n^k}>0$$

we have (or the lemma below)

$$e^{-\frac1n}=1-\frac1n+\frac1{2n^2}-\frac1{6n^3}+\sum_{k\geq4}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!n^k}\gt 1-\frac1n+\frac1{2n^2}-\frac1{6n^3}$$

it is obvious that

$$e^{\frac1{1+n}}\gt 1+\frac1{1+n}+\frac1{2{(1+n)^2}}+\frac1{6{(1+n)^3}}+ \frac1{24{(1+n)^4}}$$

if $n>2$, it is easy to check that

$$e^{-\frac1n}+e^{\frac1{1+n}}\gt 2-\frac1n+\frac1{2n^2}-\frac1{6n^3}+\frac1{1+n}+\frac1{2{(1+n)^2}}+\frac1{6{(1+n)^3}}+ \frac1{24{(1+n)^4}}\\ >2$$

In fact

$$n^3(n+1)^3\left(-\frac1n+\frac1{2n^2}-\frac1{6n^3}+\frac1{1+n}+\frac1{2{(1+n)^2}}+\frac1{6{(1+n)^3}}+ \frac1{24{(1+n)^4}}\right)=\frac{n^3}{24(n+1)}-\frac16=\frac{n(n^2-4)-4}{24(n+1)}\gt0$$

edit:

Lemma

$x\ne0$, $k$ is a odd number, then

$$e^x\gt 1+x+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\dotsb+ \frac{x^k}{k!}$$

Proof $\qquad$ according to Taylor formula, there exists $\theta(0\lt\theta\lt1)$ such that

$$e^x= 1+x+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\dotsb+ \frac{x^k}{k!}+\frac{e^{\theta x}}{(k+1)!}x^{k+1}$$

2016
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  • Probably true but not obvious. – abnry May 23 '14 at 00:48
  • @nayrb Is it obvious now? – 2016 May 23 '14 at 01:23
  • I definitely wouldn't call it obvious. Why should $2+(\frac1{n+1}-\frac1n)+O(n^2)$ necessarily be positive? You probably can collapse terms in your last expression to show manifest positivity, but it's certainly not immediately obvious. – Steven Stadnicki May 23 '14 at 01:25
  • @2016 Exactly - that's a negative quantity. Your expression is $2-\frac1{n(n+1)}+\frac1{2n^2}+\frac1{2(n+1)^2}+\ldots$; it's certainly not immediately clear (to me) that that's $\gt 2$. What's your argument for it? (You have two positive terms of size approximately $\frac12 n^{-2}$ and one negative term of size approximately $n^{-2}$, so to $O(n^2)$ the expression actually cancels.) – Steven Stadnicki May 23 '14 at 01:32
  • (Actually, I'll answer my own question: we have $\frac1{2n^2}+\frac1{2(n+1)^2}\geq\frac1{n(n+1)}$ by the AGM applied to $\frac1{n^2}$ and $\frac1{(n+1)^2}$. It's very likely that you can use a similar argument for the $O(n^{-3})$ terms and get an $AGM$ result that offers manifest positivity to $O(n^{-4})$, but it's by no means trivial) – Steven Stadnicki May 23 '14 at 01:42
  • @2016 If I'm reading Alpha correctly, you have your final expression exactly backwards in sign and the value of your expression is in fact small-negative for large $n$. (Which is okay, as on second glance you're subtracting it from $2$ - but it is a subtle sign flip, and I still wouldn't say that any of this is trivial.) Check this? – Steven Stadnicki May 23 '14 at 01:48