How can I prove that $f,g : \mathbb{Z}/(m)\times\mathbb{Z}/(m)\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}/(m)$ defined as $f([r],[s])=[r+s], g([r],[s])=[r \cdot s]$ are well defined functions?
What I'm reasoning is that if we pick two representatives of the same classes, $[r_1]=[r_2], [s_1]=[s_2]$, meaning that $r_1 \equiv r_2 \mod{m}, s_1 \equiv s_2 \mod{m}$, then $f([r_1],[s_1])=f([r_2],[s_2])$ but I don'w know how to prove this, since what I'm proving is already that last equation. It's like a circular argument.
Any help?